Model Question Paper-1
1. What is the term for a device used to take the place of a missing body part?
(A) Pronation
(B) Abduction
(C) External rotation
(D) Prosthesis
2. When a client has left-sided weakness, what part of a sweater is put on first?
(A) Both sleeves
(B) Left sleeve
(C) Client’s choice
(D) Right sleeve
3. It is appropriate for a nurse aide to share the information regarding a client’s status with:
(A) any one the nurse aide sees fit
(B) the client’s family members
(C) the client’s roommate
(D) the staff on the next shift
4. When helping a client who is recovering from a stroke to walk, the nurse aide should assist:
(A) on the client’s strong side
(B) on the client’s weak side
(C) from behind the client
(D) with a wheelchair
5. The nurse aide is caring for a client who is agitated. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) speak loudly so the client can hear the instructions
(B) ask to reassign the care of this client
(C) talk in a slow, calm, reassuring manner
(D) tell the client to be quiet
6. The purpose for padding side rails on the client’s bed is to:
(A) use them as a restraint
(B) have a place to connect the call signal
(C) protect the client from injury
(D) keep the client warm
7. Exercises that move each muscle and joint are called:
(A) adduction
(B) range of motion
(C) abduction
(D) rotation
8. How can the nurse aide BEST help a client who is not accepting a loss?
(A) Leave the client alone
(B) Convince the client to accept the loss
(C) Encourage the client to talk
(D) Discourage individual activity
9. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust) is used for a client who has:
(A) a bloody nose
(B) a blocked airway
(C) fallen out of bed
(D) impaired eyesight
10. To BEST communicate with a client who is totally deaf, the nurse aide should:
(A) smile frequently and speak loudly
(B) smile often and talk rapidly
(C) avoid eye contact
(D) write out information
11. The nurse aide is asked by a confused client what day it is. The nurse aide should:
(A) explain that memory loss is natural and the date is not important
(B) ignore the request
(C) point to the date on a calendar and say the date
(D) provide the date and then test the client later
12. To avoid pulling the catheter when turning a male client, the catheter tube must be taped to the client’s:
(A) bed sheet
(B) upper thigh
(C) bed frame
(D) hip
13. A nurse aide can assist clients with their spiritual needs by:
(A) taking clients to the nurse aide’s church
(B) allowing clients to talk about their beliefs
(C) avoiding any religious discussions
(D) talking about the nurse aide’s own spiritual beliefs
14. A nurse aide MUST wear gloves when:
(A) feeding a client
(B) doing peri-care
(C) giving a back rub
(D) doing range of motion
15. When getting ready to dress a client, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) get the first clothes the nurse aide can reach in the closet
(B) give the client a choice of what to wear
(C) use the clothes the client wore the day before
(D) choose clothes that the nurse aide personally likes
16. If the nurse aide discovers fire in a client’s room, the FIRST thing do is:
(A) call the nurse in charge
(B) try to put out the fire
(C) open a window
(D) remove the client
17. In order to communicate clearly with a client who has hearing loss, the nurse aide should:
(A) speak in a high pitched tone of voice
(B) stand behind the client when speaking
(C) speak in a loud and slow manner
(D) look directly at the client when speaking
18. Which of the following stages of dying is usually the final stage?
(A) Anger
(B) Acceptance
(C) Bargaining
(D) Depression
19. If a client says, “God is punishing me” or “Why me?”, how should the nurse aide respond?
(A) Reply, “God doesn’t punish people.”
(B) Listen quietly
(C) Ignore the client
(D) Make jokes
20. The role of the ombudsman is to:
(A) run a group of nursing homes
(B) work with the nursing home to protect clients’ rights
(C) control the nursing home budget
(D) prepare classes that nurse aides take to learn about client hygiene
21. A nurse aide who is active in her church is assigned to care for a client who is not a member of any religious group. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) help the client understand the nurse aide’s faith
(B) tell the client that it is important for the client to join some church, even if it is not the nurse aide’s church
(C) respect the client’s beliefs and avoid starting religious discussions
(D) arrange to have the nurse aide’s clergyman visit the client
22. The nurse aide notices that a client’s mail has been delivered to the client’s room. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) open the mail and leave it on the client’s table
(B) open the mail and read it to the client
(C) read the mail to make sure it doesn’t contain upsetting news
(D) give the client the unopened mail and offer help as needed
23. Which of the following is a correct measurement of urinary output?
(A) 40 oz
(B) 300 cc
(C) 2 cups
(D) 1 quart
24. The client offers a nurse aide a twenty dollar bill as a thank you for all that the nurse aide has done. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) take the money so as not to offend the client
(B) politely refuse the money
(C) take the money and buy something for the floor
(D) ask the nurse in charge what to do
25. All of the following situations are examples of abuse or neglect EXCEPT:
(A) restraining a client according to a physician’s order
(B) leaving a client alone in a bathtub
(C) threatening to withhold a client’s meals
(D) leaving a client in a wet and soiled bed
26. If a client is sitting in a chair in his room masturbating, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) report the incident to the other nurse aides
(B) tell the client to stop
(C) laugh and tell the client to go in the bathroom
(D) leave the client alone and provide privacy
27. To convert four ounces of juice to milliliters (ml), the nurse aide should multiply:
(A) 4 x 5 ml
(B) 4 x 10 ml
(C) 4 x 15 ml
(D) 4 x 30 ml
28. In giving care according to the client’s Bill of Rights, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) provide privacy during the client’s personal care
(B) open the client’s mail without permission
(C) use the client’s personal possessions for another client
(D) prevent the client from complaining about care
29. The LAST sense a dying client will lose is:
(A) smell
(B) hearing
(C) taste
(D) sight
30. A client wakes up during the night and asks for something to eat. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) check client’s diet before offering nourishment
(B) tell the client nothing is available at night
(C) explain that breakfast is coming in three hours
(D) tell the client that eating is not allowed during the night
31. The normal aging process is BEST defined as the time when:
(A) people become dependent and childlike
(B) Alzheimer’s disease begins
(C) normal body functions and senses decline
(D) people are over sixty-five years of age
32. If a client is confused, the nurse aide should:
(A) ignore the client until he starts to make sense
(B) restrain the client so that he does not hurt himself
(C) keep the client away from other clients
(D) help the client to recognize familiar things and people
33. What is the process of restoring a disabled client to the highest level of functioning possible?
(A) Responsibility
(B) Retention
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Reincarnation
34. When changing an unsterile dressing, the nurse aide should wash hands:
(A) before the procedure
(B) after the procedure
(C) before and after the procedure
(D) before, after removal of the soiled dressing, and after the procedure
35. Clean bed linen placed in a client’s room but NOT used should be:
(A) returned to the linen closet
(B) used for a client in the next room
(C) taken to the nurse in charge
(D) put in the dirty linen container
36. The nurse aide finds a conscious client lying on the bathroom floor. The FIRST thing the nurse aide should do is:
(A) help the client into a sitting position
(B) call for assistance from the nurse in charge
(C) offer the client a drink of water
(D) check for signs of injury
37. If a nurse aide finds a client who is sad and crying, the nurse aide should:
(A) ask the client if something is wrong
(B) tell the client to cheer up
(C) tell the client to stop crying
(D) call the client’s family
38. Clients have the right to:
(A) smoke in any area of the facility
(B) have access to a telephone
(C) go anywhere in the facility
(D) see other clients’ medical reports
39. Proper use of a waist restraint requires that the nurse aide:
(A) release the restraint every four hours
(B) watch for skin irritation
(C) tie restraints to the siderail
(D) apply the restraint tightly so the client cannot move
40. To prevent the spread of infection, how should the nurse aide handle the soiled linens removed from a client’s bed?
(A) Shake them in the air
(B) Place them in a neat pile on the floor
(C) Carry them close to the nurse aide’s body
(D) Put them in the dirty linen container
41. A client needs to be repositioned but is heavy, and the nurse aide is not sure she can move the client alone. The nurse aide should:
(A) try to move the client alone
(B) have the family do it
(C) ask another nurse aide to help
(D) go on to another task
42. To prevent dehydration of the client, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) offer fluids frequently while the client is awake
(B) wake the client hourly during the night to offer fluids
(C) give the client frequent baths
(D) feed the client salty food to increase thirst
43. When transferring a client, MOST of the client’s weight should be supported by the nurse aide’s:
(A) back
(B) shoulders
(C) legs
(D) wrists
44. To be sure that a client’s weight is measured accurately, the client should be weighed:
(A) after a meal
(B) by a different nurse aide
(C) at the same time of day
(D) after a good night’s sleep
45. How many tips does a quad-cane base have?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
46. BEFORE taking the oral temperature of a client who has just finished a cold drink, the nurse aide should wait:
(A) 10 to 20 minutes
(B) 25 to 35 minutes
(C) 45 to 55 minutes
(D) at least 1 hour
47. Which of the following methods is the CORRECT way to remove a dirty isolation gown?
(A) Pull it over the head
(B) Let it drop to the floor and step out of it
(C) Roll it dirty side in and away from the body
(D) Pull it off by the sleeve and shake it out
48. What would be the BEST way for the nurse aide to promote client independence in bathing a client who has had a stroke?
(A) Give the client a complete bath only when the client requests it
(B) Encourage the client to do as much as possible and assist as needed
(C) Leave the client alone and assume the client will do as much as she can
(D) Limit the client to washing her hands
49. A safety device used to assist a DEPENDENT client from a bed to a chair is called a:
(A) posey vest
(B) hand roll
(C) transfer/gait belt
(D) foot board
50. If a nurse aide needs to wear a gown to care for a client in isolation, the nurse aide MUST:
(A) wear the same gown to care for all other assigned clients
(B) leave the gown untied
(C) take the gown off before leaving the client’s room
(D) take the gown off in the dirty utility room
51. When making an occupied bed, the nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) put the dirty sheets on the floor
(B) help the client to sit in a chair while the bed is being made
(C) lower both side rails before changing the sheets
(D) raise side rail on unattended side
52. The nurse aide is in the employee dining room. A group of nurse aides are eating lunch together and begin discussing how rude a certain client was acting. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) join in the conversation
(B) suggest that this is not the place to discuss the client
(C) be quiet and not say anything to the other nurse aides
(D) return to the unit and tell the client what was said
53. The nurse aide enters a client’s room, and the client states that he has pain. What should the nurse aide do?
(A) Report it to the nurse in charge
(B) Tell the client to get out of bed for awhile
(C) Tell the client that the pain will go away soon
(D) Ignore the client’s statement
54. A client is upset and crying over the recent death of her husband. How should the nurse aide respond?
(A) Tell her not to cry because it will make her feel sad
(B) Close the door and leave the client to cry alone
(C) Take the client to an activity to help her forget her husband
(D) Sit with the client and allow her to talk about her feelings
55. Which temperature is considered MOST accurate?
(A) Oral
(B) Axillary
(C) Groin
(D) Rectal
56. What is a beginning sign of a pressure sore?
(A) Swelling
(B) Numbness
(C) Discoloration
(D) Coolness
57. While assisting a client with denture care the nurse aide observes that the upper plate is cracked. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) clean the dentures and return them to the client’s mouth
(B) call the client’s family
(C) call the dentist and make an appointment
(D) report the damage to the nurse in charge
58. A new client refuses to wear a clothing protector at lunch. The nurse aide SHOULD:
(A) tell the client that he must wear it
(B) put the clothing protector on the client
(C) report this to the nurse in charge
(D) respect the client’s wishes
59. The nurse aide can BEST show that he is listening to the client by:
(A) changing the subject frequently
(B) responding when appropriate
(C) correcting the client’s mistakes
(D) directing the conversation
60. The BEST time to prepare for a disaster is:
(A) while evacuating residents
(B) during lunch
(C) when everyone is safely in bed
(D) before it happens
61. Mode of transmission of Pertussis:
(a) Vector transmission
(b) Through contaminated water
(c) Droplet infection
(d) Faecoaral
62. Time required to measure the Mantaux test:
(a) 24 to 48 hrs
(b) 48 to72 hrs
(c) 10 to12 hrs
(d) 2 to 4 hrs
63. Name of the oral Polio Vaccine:
(a) BCG
(b) TAB
(c) Salk
(d) Sabin
64. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug except:
(a) Chloromycin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) INH
(d) PAS
65. Combination of Tripple Antigen:
(a) DPT
(b) BCG
(c) TAB
(d) ECG
66. The time interval between infection of suspected person and the
appearance of signs and symptom of the disease is called
(a) Quarrentine
(b) Recovery period
(c) Incubation
(d) Isolation period
67. Route of transmission of Hepatitis B:
(a) Oral
(b) Potential
(c) Faeco oral
(d) Contaminated water
68. Mode of transmission of typhoid fever:
(a) Intravenous
(b) Oro faceal
(c) Respiratory
(d) Droplet
69. Causative organism of diphtheria:
(a) Mycobacteria
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria
(d) Staphylococcus
70. Incubation period of measles:
(a) 1-7 days
(b) 7-14 days
(c) 14-21 days
(d) 21-28 days
71. Site for mantaux test:
(a) Outer and upper quadrant of gluteus maximus
(b) Deltoid region
(c) Posterior left forearm
(d) Anterior left forearm
72. Media of transmission of bovine type of tubercle bacilli:
(a) Milk
(b) Water
(c) Air
(d) Food
73. Painful Micturition:
(a) Eneuresis
(b) Dysuria
(c) Rentention of urine
(d) Diarrhoea
74. Amount of solution used for evacuant enema in adults:
(a) 100-250 ml
(b) 250-350ml
(c) 500-1000ml
(d) 1000-1500 ml
75. Drugs used to relieve pain:
(a) Anti inflammatory
(b) Antipyretics
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Analgesics
76. Hormone secreted by the testes:
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Pitocin
(c) Androgens
(d) Progesterone
77. One teaspoon contains …………. ml
(a) 2ml
(b) 5ml
(c) 10ml
(d) 15ml
78. One ml contains ……….. drops
(a) 5 drops
(b) 10 drops
(c) 15 drops
(d) 20 drops
79. Average weight of a new born baby:
(a) 2 kg
(b) 4 Kg
(c) 3kg
(d) 5kg
80. How much salt must be added to one litre of water to make a solution of normal saline?
(a) 2 grams
(b) 5 grams
(c) 6 grams
(d) 9 grams
81. Number of vertebra in the sacrum:
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
82. Number of chromosome in a cell: 16
(a) 23
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) 40
83. A trial septal defect occurs due to the persistence of:
(a) Formen ovale
(b) Ductus arteriosis
(c) Ductus venosus
(d) Mitral valve
84. ………. is a water soluble vitamin:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin D
85. Quickening means:
(a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound
(b) Sudden cessation of Menstruation
(c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother
(d) Nausa and vomiting in the morning
86. Cholera is caused by a kind of bacterium called:
(a) Tubercle bacillus
(b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Protozoa
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
87. Drinking of alcohol will severely effects the
(a) Kidney
(b) Brain
(c) Stomach
(d) Liver
88. The disease in which the patients blood does not clot easily is:
(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Rabies
(d) Diabetes
89. Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Penicillin
90. ……….. is caused by the fungus
(a) Malaria
(b) Athletes foot
(c) Filariasis
(d) Typhus fever
91. The Filariasis is transmitted by ……..
(a) Anopheles female mosquito
(b) Anopheles male mosquito
(c) Culex female mosquito
(d) Culex male mosquito
92. The blood group contain no antibodies:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
93. The disease that spread through sexual contact is ……….
(a) Leprosy
(b) AIDS
(c) Itches
(d) Scabies
94. Typhoid is transmitted through –
(a) Water and food
(b) Air
(c) Touch
(d) Personal contact
95. ………… is example for the disease caused by bacteria:
(a) Cold
(b) Typhoid
(c) Typhus fever
(d) Chicken pox
96. ……… is the immunity get by the body after the first attack of disease.
(a) Natural immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Artificial immunity
(d) Acquired immunity
97. The cells that are responsible for the production of antibodies are …….
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Platelets
(c) Plasma
(d) White blood cells
98. A healthy person can donate blood …… or ….. times a year.
(a) Six or seven
(b) Five or six
(c) Three or four
(d) Two or three
99. Radio active cobalt and radium are used for the treatment of –diseases.
(a) Cholera
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Cancer
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
100. World health day is on …….
(a) May 12th
(b) April 7th
(c) April 30th
(d) December 18th
101. To relieve from dyspnoea the appropriate position to be used is:
(a) Prone position
(b) Supine position
(c) Side lying position
(d) Fowler’s position
102. Protein requirement for a pregnant woman per day:
(a) 50grams
(b) 55 grams
(c) 60 grams
(d) 65 grams
103. The findus is at the level of umbilicus during ………. week pregnancy
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 28
104. Total weight gain during pregnancy is
(a) 7-8 kg
(b) 10-11 kg
(c) 13-14 kg
(d) 15-16 kg
105. The birth weight of the baby doubles at the age of
(a) 3 months
(b) 6months
(c) 9months
(d) 12months
106. Infancy period is from
(a) Birth to one month
(b) One month to 1 year
(c) 1 years to 3 years
(d) 3 years to 5 years
107. The following are the signs of dehydration except:
(a) Sunken tearless eyes
(b) Loss of skin elasticity
(c) Diuresis
(d) depressed fintenelle
108. The following are the contests of ORS except:
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Sugar
(c) Potassium Chloride
(d) Calcium Carbonate
109. The most common from of malnutrition are the following except
(a) Beri-beri
(b) Protein energy malnutrition
(c) Marasmus
(d) Kwashiorkor
110. The first course of oral pills should be stared on the ….. day of menstrual cycle.
(a) 2nd
(b) 7th
(c) 5th
(d) 10th
111. The following are the natural method of contraception except:
(a) Foam tablet
(b) Basal metabolic temperature
(c) Rhythm method
(d) Safe period
112. ……… is the permanent method of sterilization.
(a) MTP
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Tubectomy
(d) D & C
113. The following organs are situated in the abdominal cavity except:
(a) Stomach
(b) Oesophagus
(c) liver
(d) Spleen
114. The system of body which helps for the removal of waste matter from body:
(a) Digestive system
(b) Endocrine system
(c) Respiratory system
(d) Excretory system
115. Total number of bones in human body:
(a) 306
(b) 206
(c) 106
(d) 406
116. Eruption of teeth starts at the age of ……. month
(a) 4 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 10 months
117. The never, which carries messages from the brain and spinal cord muscles and glands:
(a) Motor nerve
(b) Sensory nerve
(c) Mixed nerve
(d) Autonomic nerve
118. Speech centre is situated in:
(a) Perietal lobe
(b) Frontal lobe
(c) Occipital lobe
(d) Temporal lobe
119. Largest gland in the body:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Liver
(d) Gall bladder
120. Head control of the infant occurs at the age of …… month
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
121. Peurparium is the period begins:
(a) As soon as the placenta is expelled and last for 6 to 8 weeks
(b) As soon as the baby is expelled and last for 6 to 8 weeks
(c) As soon as the membrane ruptures and last for 6 to 8 weeks
(d) As soon as the placenta is expelled and last for 10 to 12 weeks
122. When the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part and the membranes are intact it is known as:
(a) Cord prolapse
(b) Cord presentation
(c) Cord pulsation
(d) Cord delivery
123. Starting of menstrual cycle is called:
(a) Ovulation
(b) Menstruation
(c) Menarche
(d) Menopause
124. Normal blood urea level is:
(a) 40-60 mg%
(b) 20-40 mg%
(c) 10-20 mg%
(d) 80-120 mg%
125. One gram of carbohydrate yields:
(a) 4 calories
(b) 8 calories
(c) 9 calories
(d) 1 calorie
126. A method of making the victim to breath passively
(a) Artificial respiration
(b) Spontaneous respiration
(c) Deep breathing
(d) Kusmal breathing
127. Minute, this walled blood vessels between the ends of the arteries and beginning of veins is called:
(a) Arteries
(b) Veins
(c) Capillaries
(d) Alveoli
128. A waste gas produced by the body and exhaled through the lungs is:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Nitrogen peroxide
(d) Oxygen
129. A condition characterized by moving of bones out joint:
(a) Fracture
(b) Sprain
(c) Strain
(d) Dislocation
130. A tube of muscular tissue carrying ingested food from the mouth to stomach:
(a) Oesophagus
(b) Duodenum
(c) Trachea
(d) Pharynx
131. A red pigment in the blood cells which combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide for carrying them:
(a) Red blood cells
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Platelet
(d) Plasma
132. Information given by the sufferer about his illness:
(a) Sign
(b) Symptom
(c) Observation
(d) Diagnosis
133. Normal respiratory rate in adults is:
(a) 20â€╕40/min
(b) 40â€╕60/min
(c) 16â€╕20/min
(d) 10â€╕15/min
134. The normal body temperature is …….. 0C.
(a) 350C
(b) 370C
(c) 400C
(d) 420C
135. Characteristic of the blood flow due to arterial bleeding is the following except:
(a) Bright red in colour
(b) Spunts at each cartrachian of the heart
(c) Flow is pulsatile
(d) Dark red in colour
136. An agent that has power to kill Micro-organism:18
(a) Bacteriostat
(b) Bacteriocide
(c) Antiseptic
(d) Bacteriostasis
137. Strength of savlon forcleaning of wounds:
(a) 1:10
(b) 1:100
(c) 1:1000
(d) 1:10000
138. Inflammation of the tongue:
(a) Glossitis
(b) Gingivitis
(c) Stomatitis
(d) Parotitis
139. Following are predisposing cause for bedsore except:
(a) Impaired circulation
(b) Lowered vitality
(c) Emaciation
(d) Anorexia
140. Inability to sleep is termed as:
(a) Dyspepsia
(b) Dyspnaea
(c) Anorexia
(d) Insumania
141. Tobacco contains a poisonous substance called
(a) Nicotine
(b) Narcotics
(c) Alcohol
(d) Caffeine
142. A disease caused by allergic disease is called
(a) Asthma
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Cancer
(d) Gastroenteritis
143. An adult has …… litres of blood in his body.
(a) 7-8
(b) 5-6
(c) 9-10
(d) 2-3
144. Several persons in a town got the attack of leukemia. Which of the following can be possible reason for that?
(a) Exposed to radiation
(b) Drinking polluted water
(c) Smoking
(d) Breathing in impure air
145. The energy value of ……… is more than that of others
(a) Fats
(b) Starch
(c) Protein
(d) Sugar
146. The product formed when amino acid molecules combine together is called
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Starch
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Proteins
147. Women having normal limbs may sometimes give birth to babies with deformed limbs. This must be due to:
(a) Spontaneous generation
(b) Mutation
(c) Inheritance of acquired character
(d) Natural selection
148. Hormones are transported to all parts of the body through the
(a) Nerves
(b) Blood
(c) Lymph
(d) Muscles
149. Deficiency of ……. in food causes simple goiter.
(a) Sodium
(b) Iron
(c) Iodine
(d) Calcium
150. Cortisone is used as an effective anti-inflamatory drug in the treatment of ……….
(a) High blood pressure
(b) Arteroisclerosis
(c) Arthritis
(d) Diabetes
151. Deficiency of thyroxin in adults leads to a condition called:
(a) Tetani
(b) Cretinism
(c) Myxoedema
(d) Graves diseases
152. The hormone that is injected to pregnant women at the time of delivery is
(a) Vasopressin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Androgen
(d) Oestrogen
153. The outer layer of the eye ball is
(a) Sclera
(b) Choroids
(c) Retina
(d) Conjunctiva
154. The smallest bone in the human body is
(a) Malleus
(b) Incus
(c) Stapes
(d) Sternum
155. Central nervous system includes:
(a) The brain and cranial nerves
(b) The cranial nerves and spinal cord
(c) The spinal nerves and brain
(d) The spinal nerves and brain
156. Short sightedness can be corrected by using spectacles with ….. lens.
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Cylindrical
(d) Opaque
157. Normal sugar level in our blood is:
(a) 95-125 mg/100ml
(b) 65-130 mg/100ml
(c) 80-120 mg/100ml
(d) 90-140 mg/100 ml
158. Labour takes place after …… days of last menstrual period
(a) 300
(b) 280
(c) 365
(d) 240
159. Signs of true labour are the following except:
(a) Painful rhythmic uterine contraction
(b) Dilatation of the OS
(c) Fetal movement
(d) Show
160. Signs of separation of placenta are the following except:
(a) Lengthening of the cord at vulva
(b) Gush of blood is seen
(c) Fundus risas upto umbilicus
(d) Temperature rises
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